Trang chủ Học tập Lớp 6 Đề thi học kì 2 Lớp 6

Đề thi học kì 2 Tiếng Anh 6 Right on (Có đáp án, File nghe)

Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 Right on năm 2023 - 2024

Đề thi cuối kì 2 Tiếng Anh 6 Right on (Có đáp án, file nghe)

Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2023 - 2024 sách Right on có đáp án, file nghe kèm theo, giúp các em học sinh lớp 6 tham khảo, luyện giải đề, nắm vững cấu trúc đề thi để đạt kết quả cao trong kỳ thi học kì 2 năm 2023 - 2024.

Đồng thời, cũng giúp thầy cô tham khảo xây dựng đề thi học kì 2 năm 2023 - 2024 cho học sinh của mình. Bên cạnh đó, có thể tham khảo đề cương học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 Right on. Chi tiết mời thầy cô và các em theo dõi bài viết dưới đây của Download.vn:

Đề thi cuối kì 2 Tiếng Anh 6 Right on năm 2023 - 2024

I. Listen to the conversation and decide whether the statements are True or False.

1. Steve had a fantastic weekend.

2. His team won the basketball match on Saturday.

3. He found the science-fiction film boring.

4. He didn’t watch the documentary on TV last night.

II. Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress.

5.

A. bargain

B. decide

C. concert

D. plastic

6.

A. entertainment

B. underwater

C. experience

D. exhibition

III. Find the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation.

7.

A. promised

B. walked

C. hoped

D. visited

8.

A. stable

B. capsule

C. travel

D. actual

IV. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence.

9. Honey bees fly by moving their __________ about 230 times every second.

A. eyes

B. beaks

C. wings

D. ears

10. I __________ in a capsule for the first time yesterday.

A. to

a ride

B. to

a roller coaster

C. went down a ride

D. picked up a ride

11. Animation films are my favourite. I find them very __________ because they always make me laugh.

A. amused

B. amusing

C. boring

D. interested

12. I love watching __________ with my family. We try to answer all the questions and have a family competition.

A. soap operas

B. thrillers

C. co

ery shows

D. game shows

13. Sophie loves __________ live performances, so she often visits the concert hall.

A. attending

B. going

C. listening

D. playing

14. You __________ tired tomorrow if you __________ to bed late.

A. are/will go

B. will be/will go

C. are/are going

D. will be/ go

15. Student A: “How was your holiday?” - Student B: “__________”

A. It was rainy.

B. It was amazing.

C. It was last year.

D. We went sightseeing.

16. Student A: “There’s a comedy starting on Channel 4.” - Student B: “__________”

A. It was great.

B. No, I’m not.

C. Let’s watch that!

D. Not really.

17. Ben: Why are you carrying those big bags, mom? - Ben’s mom: __________.

A. I’ll buy a lot of things at the supermarket.

B. I’m going to buy a lot of things at the supermarket.

C. I buy a lot of things at the supermarket.

D. I won’t buy a lot of things at the supermarket.

18. You should see my new classmates! I’m sure you __________ them.

A. like

B. are going to like

C. should like

D. will like

V. Read the following passage and decide whether the statements that follow are True or False.

PUBLIC TRANSPORT IN LONDON

There are many ways of travelling in London. The London Underground or ‘the Tube’ was the first underground railway system in the world. People first used it in 1863. People called it ‘the Tube’ in 1890. In 1908, they designed the London Underground’s logo – a red circle and a blue rectangle. There are about 11 lines and 270 stations today. The Tube services run from 5a.m. until midnight. London buses – or double-deckers – are typically red and many of them have got two floors. Buses are the cheapest way to travel around the city. You can also catch a boat – London river buses – at the River Thames and enjoy fantastic views of London along the way. It’s fast and tickets are not expensive at all. People who live in London or tourists can buy an Oyster Card. It’s an electronic ticket you use to travel on any public transport in the city.

19. You can’t use the Tube in the evening.

20. Many London buses are red and blue and have got two floors.

21. It doesn’t cost much money to buy tickets for London river buses.

22. People can use an Oyster Card on any public transport in London.

VI. Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank.

Hi Helen,

I hope you are well. How was your summer holiday? We went on a safari in Kenya and it was fantastic. We arrived in Kenya (23) __________ plane, then we to

the bus to Nairobi National Park. We went on a (24) __________ around the park in a Jeep. We were (25) __________ when we saw a family of cheetahs walking in fronf of our Jeep. We stopped and watched them for about ten minutes. Amazing! Cheetah’s (26) __________ is beautiful with black spots. We also visited the baby elephants in the orphanage. I really loved those animals when I saw them. I think I (27) __________ a vet when I grow up and work with elephants. We returned home (28) __________. It was an unforgettable experience.

See you soon.

Mason

23.

A. on

B. by

C. with

D. in

24.

A. roller coaster

B. ride

C. performance

D. guide tour

25.

A. surprised

B. surprising

C. bored

D. boring

26.

A. mane

B. feather

C. fur

D. trunk

27.

A. will become

B. be

C. am coming

D.am

28.

A. two days after

B. two days ago

C. last two days

D. before two days

VII. Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets.

29. __________ your science homework last night, Kim? (YOU/DO)

30. My sister _________ to New York tomorrow morning at seven o’clock. She bought her ticket flight yesterday. (FLY)

31. In the future, I think people __________ on another planet. (LIVE)

32. There ______ many clowns and acrobats with colourful costumes at the circus last weekend. (BE)

VIII. Rearrange the words to make correct sentences.

33. you/ What/ have/ dinner/ last/ did/ for/ night/?

_______________________________________

34. We/ visit/ our/ are/ this/ grandparents/ going/ weekend/ to/.

_______________________________________

IX. Make a suitable question for the underlined part in each sentence.

35. Virginia Woolf wrote her first bo

in 1915.

_______________________________________

36. Peter stayed in bed all day yesterday because he was ill.

_______________________________________

37. I saw a robotics exhibition at the new exhibition centre last Saturday.

_______________________________________

X. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning.

38. If you don’t study harder, you won’t pass the exams.

=> Unless ____________________________________

39. I advise you not to arrive late at the meeting.

=> You ______________________________________

40. It’s possible that our class will visit the National Fine Arts Museum next month.

=> Our class __________________________________

Đáp án đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 Right on

1. False5. B9. C13. A17. B21. True25. A29. Did you do
2. False6. C10. A14. D18. D22. True26.C30. is flying
3. True7. D11. B15. B19. False23. B27. A31. will live
4. True8. A12. D16. C20. False24. D28. B32. were

33. What did you have for dinner last night?

34. We are going to visit our grandparents this weekend

35. When did Virginia Woolf write her first bo

?

36. Why did Peter stay in bed all day yesterday?

37. Where did you see a robotics exhibition last Saturday?

38. Unless you study harder, you won’t pass the exams.

39. You shouldn’t arrive late at the meeting.

40. Our class might visit the National Fine Arts Museum next month.

Liên kết tải về

zip Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 Right on năm 2023 - 2024

Chia sẻ

Chia sẻ qua Facebook Chia sẻ

Liên hệ hợp tác hoặc quảng cáo: gmail

Điều khoản dịch vụ

Copyright © 2021 HOCTAPSGK