TOP 21 Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2023 - 2024 sách Chân trời sáng tạo, Kết nối tri thức, Cánh diều, i-Learn Smart World, Right on, giúp các em học sinh tham khảo, luyện giải đề để nắm thật chắc cấu trúc đề thi cuối học kì 2 năm 2023 - 2024.

Bộ đề thi học kì 2 Tiếng Anh 6 có đáp án, hướng dẫn chấm và bảng ma trận kèm theo, giúp thầy cô có thêm nhiều kinh nghiệm để xây dựng đề thi học kì 2 năm 2023 - 2024 cho học sinh của mình. Ngoài ra, có thể tham khảo thêm đề thi môn Ngữ văn, Toán. Vậy chi tiết mời thầy cô cùng theo dõi bài viết dưới đây của Download.vn:

1. Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Kết nối tri thức

1.1. Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2023 – 2024
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6
(Thời gian làm bài 60 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)

PART A: LISTEN (2.25pts)

I. Listen to the conversation between Khang and Dr Adams and tick ( ✔) True ( T ) or False ( F ). - 1,25pt ( Ex 2- Skill 2 – Unit 12 – English 6)

	T	F
1.Robots can't do many things today.
2.Worker robots can build the very high buildings.
3.Teacher robots can teach on the internet.
4.Robots can talk to humans.
5.Robots can do everything like humans.

II. Listen and choose the correct answer. - 1pt

1. What type of house does Linda have?

A. a cottage
B. a villa
C. a city house
D. a flat

2. Where is her house?

A. in the city
B. in the country
C. by the sea
D. in themountains

3. What is around her house?

A. a swimming pool
B. a garden
C. many trees
D. a swimming pool and a garden

4. What type of house does Nick have?

A. a cottage
B. a flat
C. a city house
D. a villa

PART B: LANGUAGE FOCUS (2.75pts)

I. Choose the best answer. - 1,75pts

1. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.

A. bo

s
B. plans
C. tables
D. chairs

2. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.

A. tale
B. hang
C. land
D. hand

3. There aren’t _______good films on television at the moment.

A. some
B. any
C. much
D. a lot

4. If we cut down more forests, there _______more floods.

A. are
B. were
C. have been
D. will be

5. Amsterdam is one of the_______ cities in the world.

A. peaceful
B. more peaceful
C. most peaceful
D. as peaceful

6. The opposite of “dangerous” is _______.

A. polluted
B. good
C. safe
D. dirty

7. The kids are more interested _______ watching TV than playing sports.

A. on
B. in
C. of
D. at

II. Complete the sentences with the correct form of verbs. - 1pt

1. Mrs Mai (finish) ______________her work at 5p.m tomorrow.

2. Lo

! Lan (wear) ______________a new dress.

3. Viet Nam (have) ______________many beautiful beaches.

4. You should not (litter) ______________ in our neighborhood.

PART C: READING (2.75pts)

I. Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each gap to complete the following passage. - 1,25pt

Bill lives in an amazing home, a light house. His light house is (1) ___________ the sea and you can hear the sea every day. It’s not a (2) ___________ place because it’s often windy and many noisy birds calling. The wall (3) ___________ the windows are very thick to protect the building from storms. Bill says that (4) ___________ is safe here, in his house. In the future, Bill (5) ___________ buy a robot dog. He wants a friend.

1. A. next B. near C.on D. between

2. A. favourite B. noisy C. colourful D. quiet

3. A. so B. but C. and D. because

4. A. she B. they C. he D. his

5. A. is B. will C. will not D. need

II. Read the following passage and answer the questions. -1,5pts

Da Nang has a population of nearly 800,000 people. The Han River flows through the city. The city part on the east bank is newer and more spacious. The city part on the west bank is more crowed. There are five bridges across the river. The Han River Bridge is the newest one now.

The cost of living in Da Nang is the lowest in Central Viet Nam. Da Nang has many beaches. Among them, Non Nuoc Beach is one of the most beautiful beaches in the world. But walking in the streets on a summer afternoon is not a good idea in Da Nang. There are not many trees so there are not shadows. It is often very hot at noon.

A. True (T) or False (F):

	Statement	T	F
1.	The population of Da Nang is over 800,000 people.
2.	The city part on the west bank is more crowed.

B. Answer the questions:

Which river flows through Da Nang city?

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

2. How many bridges across the river are there?

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

3. What is the weather like in Da Nang at noon?

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

4. Are there many trees in Da Nang?

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

PART D: WRITING (2.25pts)

I. Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the sentence before. - 1,25pt

1. She is interested in watching television.

- She likes ……………………………………………………………………………………………

2. The Nile is the longest river in the world.

- No river in the world is ……………………………………………………………………………

3. The bo

store is in front of the restaurant.

The restaurant is……………………………………………………………………........................

4. It is wrong of us to throw rubbish.

- We mustn’t…………………………………………………………………………………………

5. It is not good to stay up so late to listen to music.

- You should…………………………………………………………………………………………

II. Write a paragraph (40-60 words) about your favorite TV program (1,0pt).

You can base on some suggestions below:

- What is your favourite TV program?

- What time is it on?

- Why do you like it?

- Which channel is it on?

- What is it about?

1.2. Đáp án đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

PART A: LISTEN

I. Listen to the conversation between Khang and Dr Adams and tick ( ✔) True ( T ) or False ( F ). - 1,25pt

1- F, 2- T, 3- T, 4- T, 5- F

II. Listen and choose the correct answer. - 1pt

1. A 2. C 3. D 4. D

PART B: LANGUAGE FOCUS

I. Choose the best answer. -1,75pt

1. A 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. B

II. Complete the sentences with the correct form of verbs. -1pt

1. will finish 2. is wearing 3. has 4. litter

PART C: READING

I. Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each gap to complete the following passage. - 1,25pt

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. B

II. Read the following passage and answer the questions. - 1,5pt

A. True (T) or False (F):

1- F 2- T

B. Answer the questions:

1. The Han River/ The Han River does/ flows through the city.

2. There are five bridges across the river. / There are five bridges./ There are five./ Five./ Five bridges.

3. It is often very hot at noon./ Very hot at noon./ Very hot.

4. No, there are not/ No, there aren’t./ No.

PART D: WRITING

I. Rewrite the sentences. -1,25pt

1. She likes watching television.

2. No river in the world is longer than/ as long as the Nile.

3. The restaurant is behind the bo

store.

4. We mustn’t throw rubbish.

5. You should not/ shouldn’t stay up so late to listen to music.

II. Điểm toàn bài: 1,0 điểm và chấm theo các tiêu chí sau.

Marking scheme:

1. Format: (0.1 point for correct format). One paragraph only with the introduction, the
body, and the conclusion.

2. Content: (0.4 point): a provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to the main idea.

3. Language: (0.3 point): a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
secondary students.

4. Presentation: (0.2 point): Coherence, cohesion and style appropriate to the level of
secondary students.

1.3. Ma trận đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

TT	Kỹ năng	MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC								Tổng số câu		Điểm số
		Nhận biết		Thông hiểu		Vận dụng		Vận dụng cao
		Tự luận	Trắc nghiệm	Tự luận	Trắc nghiệm	Tự luận	Trắc nghiệm	Tự luận	Trắc nghiệm	Tự luận	Trắc nghiệm
	(1)	(2)	(3)	(4)	(5)	(6)	(7)	(8)	(9)	(10)	(11)	(12)
1	Listening		6		3					0	9	2,25
2	Language	2	5	2	2					4	7	2,75
3	Reading		3	1	4	3				4	7	2,75
4	Writing					5		4		9	0	2,25
Số câu		2	14	3	9	8		4		17	23	40
Điểm số		0,5	3,5	0,75	2,25	2,0	0	1,0	0	4,25	5,75	10
Tỉ lệ %		40		30		20		10		42,5%	57,5%	100%
Tổng số điểm		4,0 điểm		3,0 điểm		2,0 điểm		1,0 điểm		10 điểm		10 điểm

1.4. Bản đặc tả đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

TT

Kĩ năng

Đơn vị kiến thức/kỹ năng

Mức độ kiến thức, kĩ năng cần kiểm tra, đánh giá

Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức

Tổng Số CH

Nhận biết

Thông hiểu

Vận dụng

Vận dụng cao

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

I.

LISTENING

1. Nghe một đoạn hội thoại 1.5-3.00 phút (khoảng 80 – 100 từ) giữa hai người bạn để trả lời các câu hỏi bằng cách chọn đáp án đúng về chủ đề My neighbourhood (5 câu)

Nhận biết: - Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết về một trong các chủ đề đã học.

3

3

Thông hiểu: - Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn độc thoại/ hội thoại để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

2

2

Vận dụng: - Nắm được ý chính của bài nghe để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp. - Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

2. Nghe một đoạn hội thoại 1.5-3.00 phút (khoảng 80 – 100 từ) và trả lời các câu hỏi trắc nghiệm true/false về chủ đề my house- căn phòng của Linda. (4 câu)

Nhận biết: - Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết.

3

3

Thông hiểu: - Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn độc thoại/ hội thoại để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

1

1

Vận dụng: - Nắm được ý chính của bài nghe để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp. - Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

II.	LANGUAGE	Pronunciation (2câu) -Nguyên âm đơn /æ/ và nguyên âm đôi /ei/ -Phụ âm /s/ và /ʃ/	Nhận biết: - Nhận biết các âm thông qua các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học.	2								2
			Thông hiểu: - Phân biệt được các âm trong phần nghe.
			Vận dụng: - Hiểu và vận dụng vào bài nghe/nói.
		Vocabulary ( 5 câu) Từ vựng đã học theo các chủ đề ở hk 2	Nhận biết: - Nhận ra, nhớ lại, liệt kê được các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học.	3								3
			Thông hiểu: - Hiểu và phân biệt được các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học. - Nắm được các mối liên kết và kết hợp của từ trong bối cảnh và ngữ cảnh tương ứng.			2						2
			Vận dụng: - Hiểu và vận dụng được từ vựng đã học trong văn cảnh (danh từ, động từ, tính từ và trạng từ…)
		Grammar (4 câu) Các chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã học ở hk 2	Nhận biết: - Nhận ra được các kiến thức ngữ pháp đã học.		2								2
			Thông hiểu: - Hiểu và phân biệt các chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã học.				2						2
			Vận dụng: - Vận dụng những điểm ngữ pháp đã học vào bài viết/ nói/ nghe/ đọc.
III.	READING	1. Cloze test (5 câu) Hiểu được bài đọc có độ dài khoảng 80-100 và làm bài tập trắc nghiệm từ về chủ đề my house	Nhận biết: - Nhận ra được các thành tố ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản.	2								2

			Thông hiểu: - Phân biệt được các đặc trưng, đặc điểm các thành tố ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản.			3						3
			Vận dụng: - Sử dụng các kiến thức ngôn ngữ và kỹ năng trong các tình huống mới.
		2. Reading (6 câu) comprehension Hiểu được nội dung chính và nội dung chi tiết đoạn văn bản có độ dài khoảng 100-120 từ về chủ đề wonders of Viet Nam	Nhận biết: Thông tin chi tiết.	1								1
			Thông hiểu: Hiểu ý chính của bài đọc.			1	1					2
			Vận dụng: - Đoán nghĩa của từ trong văn cảnh. - Hiểu, phân tích, tổng hợp ý chính của bài để chọn câu trả lời phù hợp.						3			3
IV.	WRITING	1. Sentence transformation(5 câu) Viết lại câu dùng từ gợi ý sao cho nghĩa tương đương với câu ban đầu.	Nhận biết
			Thông hiểu:
			Vận dụng:						5				5
		2. Write a paragraph(căn cứ yêu cầu cần đạt môn tiếng Anh với lớp 6 Viết (có hướng dẫn) một đoạn văn ngắn, đơn giản khoảng 40 - 60 từ về chủ đề “Favorite TV program”. (1 bài)	Vận dụng cao: Viết 1 đoạn văn có gợi ý: + chương trình TV ưa thích + thời gian chiếu + lý do yêu thích + lựa chọn kênh - + nội dung chương trình.								1 bài		1 bài
Tổng		40 câu		14	2	9	3		8		1 bài	17	19 + 1 bài

1.5. File nghe đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

2. Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 - Explore English

Choose the word which has the underlined part is pronounced differently.

1. a. b ea ch	b. s ea son	c. w ea ther	d. r ea d
2. a. fl ow er	b. t ow n	c. sl ow	d. n ow
3. a. r i de	b. discipl i ne	c. dr i ve	d. Motorb i ke
4. a. n o se	b. c o lor	c. m o ther	d. M o nday
5. a. r ou nd	b. h ou se	c. sh ou lder	d. m ou th

Make questions from the words underlined

1. I’d like some rice and chicken for dinner.

2. A cake is 5,000 đ

3. I feel tired

4. I go fishing once a week

5. Ye s. I often play badminton in the fall.

Read and complete . Use the worlds in the box

Her/ often/ from/ favorite/ French/ likes/

I have two friends. They are Mary and Paul. Mary is …(1)…… England. She is English. Paul is from France. He is ……(2)…… . They are both eleven. Mary ……(3)…… studying mathematics. She often listen to music in …(4)…… free time. Paul likes studying English. He does not like listening to music. He ……(5)….. plays sports in his free time. His ……(6)…… sport is football.

Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first

1. The Nile is the longest river in the world.

– No river ……………………………………………………………………………………….

2. We will probably visit Japan in the future.

– We might …………………………………………………………………………………...………………..

3. My brother can run very fast.

– My brother is ……………………………………………………………………………………

4. Nga likes badminton best.

– Nga’s favourite ………………………………………………………………………………

ĐÁP ÁN

Choose the odd one out.

1 – b; 2 – a; 3 – b; 4 – d; 5 – c;

Choose the word which has the underlined part is pronounced differently.

1 – c; 2 – c; 3 – b; 4 – a; 5 – c;

Make questions from the words underlined

1 – What would you like for dinner?

2 – How much is a cake?

3 – How do you feel?

4 – How often do you go fishing?

5 – Do you often play badminton (in the fall)?

Read and complete . Use the worlds in the box

1 – from; 2 – French; 3 – is; 4 – her; 5 – likes; 6 – favorite;

Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first

1 – No river is longer than the Nile.

2 – We might visit Japan in the future.

3 – My brother is able to run very fast.

4 – Nga’s favorite sport is badminton.

3. Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Chân trời sáng tạo

3.1. Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

Choose the correct answer to complete the sentence.

1. My cousin gave me a present ______ my birthday.

A. for B. of C. on D. in

2. My sisters didn’t go ______ holiday last year.

A. in B. on C. at D. to

3. Trolleybuses and trams can not move without ______.

A. petrol B. gas C. coal D. electricity

4. A ______ can travel between continents.

A. cable car B. plane C. boat D. train

5. The first ______ system in the world is the London Underground.

A. ferry B. Bus C. subway D. train

Read the following passage. Decide if the statements from 1 to 5 are True or False.

A LIFE IN PHOTOS

On 23 January 1996, Munish Bansal to

a photo of his new baby daughter Suman.

Every day after that, Munish to

another photo of his daughter, sometimes in the morning, sometimes in the afternoon.

Sometimes Suman was tired or sad and she didn’t want to lo

at the camera, but she was usually happy.

From one day to the next Suman didn’t change a lot, but every year she grew or changed a little.

On her eighteenth birthday, 6,575 days after she was born, Munish to

a photo of his daughter as usual. But in this photo, she was an adult.

Munish collected all of the 6,575 photos, made one big picture from them, and gave it to her as a present.

1. Munish didn’t take photos when Suman was sad.

2. Munish to

a photo of his daughter at a different time every day.

3. Suman is quite different in the photos from one day to the next.

4. Suman was an adult when she received the present.

5. Munish collect all 6575 photos to make a big picture.

Supply the correct tenses or word forms.

1. There _________ any students in the room last night. (be, not)

2. My father _________ a new car last week. (buy)

3. Chris Hemsworth is a ________ Australian actor. (fame)

5. Mary has a ____beautiful_____ dress. (beauty)

5. We ________ our grandparents last Saturday. (visit)

3.2. Đáp án đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

Choose the correct answer to complete the sentence.

1 - A; 2 - B; 3 - D; 4 - B; 5 - C;

Read the following passage. Decide if the statements from 1 to 5 are True or False.

1 - False; 2 - True; 3 - False; 4 - True; 5 - True;

Supply the correct tenses or word forms.

1. There ____weren’t_____ any students in the room last night. (be, not)

2. My father ____bought_____ a new car last week. (buy)

3. Chris Hemsworth is a ____famous____ Australian actor. (fame)

5. Mary has a ____beautiful_____ dress. (beauty)

5. We ___visited_____ our grandparents last Saturday. (visit)

4. Đề thi học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 sách i-Learn Smart World

I. Find the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation.

1. A. weather B. brother C. cathedral D. although

2. A. parks B. computers C. astronauts D. maps

II. Choose the correct answer to complete the sentence.

1. Don’t forget to bring a ________. It will keep you warm when you sleep at the campsite.

A. flashlight B. towel C. sleeping bag D. battery

2. ________ is special clothing to wear when astronauts work outside in space.

A. Space station B. Gravity C. Spaceship D. Spacesuit

3. In the future, automatic food machines ________ all our food.

A. might make B. will be C. have D. prepares

4. Your parents ________ angry if you ________ playing computer games.

A. are/ won’t stop B. will be/ don’t stop

C. will be/ won’t stop D. will be/ stop

5. You ________ eat so many sweets. They aren’t good for you.

A. have to B. need C. can D. shouldn’t

III. Read the following passage and complete the tasks.

Hi, Susan.

We’re having a wonderful time in Australia. We arrived in Melbourne last week and stayed there for two days. On the first day, we went to Royal Botanic Gardens. Visiting Botanic Gardens is the best free thing to do in Melbourne. There are more than 8500 species of plants here. In the summer, there are also live performances in the Gardens. On the next day, we visited Royal Exhibition building. It’s one of the oldest places in Melbourne. We arrived in Sydney yesterday morning. The city was so nice in the sunshine. We sat in a café by the river and had lunch. Sydney is more exciting than Melbourne, but it is noisier and more expensive. Melbourne is smaller, but it has a lot of lovely old buildings and great restaurants. That’s why I prefer Melbourne.

Wish you were here.

Jennifer.

1. Jennifer stayed in Melbourne for one day.

2. It costs a lot of money to visit Royal Botanic Gardens.

3. People can enjoy live performances in Botanic Gardens in the summer.

4. Jennifer likes Melbourne more than Sydney.

IV. Make a suitable question for the underlined part in each sentence.

1. You should visit Ha Giang province in February.

____________________________________

2. I think people will live under the sea in the future.

____________________________________

3. We can go hiking and rafting there.

____________________________________

V. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning.

1. Hurry or you will be late for the performance.

→ If you don’t ___________________________

2. If we can’t buy tickets for the British museum, we will go to Kensington Gardens.

→ Unless _________________________________________

3. The Nile is longer than any other river in the world.

→ The Nile is _________________________________________

4. The average temperature in Sydney is 18.3⁰ C and the average temperature in Toronto is 7.4⁰C .

→ Toronto is _____________________________________

5. We will probably live on the sea in the future.

→ We _________________________________

ĐÁP ÁN

I. Find the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation.

1 - C; 2 - B;

II. Choose the correct answer to complete the sentence.

1 - C; 2 - D; 3 - B; 4 - B; 5 - D;

III. Read the following passage and complete the tasks.

1 - False; 2 - False; 3 - True; 4 - True;

IV. Make a suitable question for the underlined part in each sentence.

1 - When should I visit Ha Giang province?

2 - Where do you think people will live in the future?

3 - What can we do there?

V. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning.

1. Hurry or you will be late for the performance.

→ If you don’t ____hurry, you will be late for the performance.____________

2. If we can’t buy tickets for the British museum, we will go to Kensington Gardens.

→ Unless __we can buy tickets for the British museum, we will go to Kensington Gardens. ___

3. The Nile is longer than any other river in the world.

→ The Nile is ____the longest river in the world__________

4. The average temperature in Sydney is 18.3^oC and the average temperature in Toronto is 7.4^oC .

→ Toronto is _____colder than Sydney._________

5. We will probably live on the sea in the future.

→ We _______might/ may live on the sea in the future._________

5. Đề thi cuối kì 2 Tiếng Anh 6 Right on

I. Listen to the conversation and decide whether the statements are True or False.

1. Steve had a fantastic weekend.

2. His team won the basketball match on Saturday.

3. He found the science-fiction film boring.

4. He didn’t watch the documentary on TV last night.

II. Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress.

5.

A. bargain

B. decide

C. concert

D. plastic

6.

A. entertainment

B. underwater

C. experience

D. exhibition

III. Find the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation.

7.

A. promis ed

B. walk ed

C. hop ed

D. visit ed

8.

A. st a ble

B. c a psule

C. tr a vel

D. a ctual

IV. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence.

9. Honey bees fly by moving their __________ about 230 times every second.

A. eyes

B. beaks

C. wings

D. ears

10. I __________ in a capsule for the first time yesterday.

A. to

a ride

B. to

a roller coaster

C. went down a ride

D. picked up a ride

11. Animation films are my favourite. I find them very __________ because they always make me laugh.

A. amused

B. amusing

C. boring

D. interested

12. I love watching __________ with my family. We try to answer all the questions and have a family competition.

A. soap operas

B. thrillers

C. co

ery shows

D. game shows

13. Sophie loves __________ live performances, so she often visits the concert hall.

A. attending

B. going

C. listening

D. playing

14. You __________ tired tomorrow if you __________ to bed late.

A. are/will go

B. will be/will go

C. are/are going

D. will be/ go

15. Student A: “How was your holiday?” - Student B: “__________”

A. It was rainy.

B. It was amazing.

C. It was last year.

D. We went sightseeing.

16. Student A: “There’s a comedy starting on Channel 4.” - Student B: “__________”

A. It was great.

B. No, I’m not.

C. Let’s watch that!

D. Not really.

17. Ben: Why are you carrying those big bags, mom? - Ben’s mom: __________.

A. I’ll buy a lot of things at the supermarket.

B. I’m going to buy a lot of things at the supermarket.

C. I buy a lot of things at the supermarket.

D. I won’t buy a lot of things at the supermarket.

18. You should see my new classmates! I’m sure you __________ them.

A. like

B. are going to like

C. should like

D. will like

V. Read the following passage and decide whether the statements that follow are True or False.

PUBLIC TRANSPORT IN LONDON

There are many ways of travelling in London. The London Underground or ‘the Tube’ was the first underground railway system in the world. People first used it in 1863. People called it ‘the Tube’ in 1890. In 1908, they designed the London Underground’s logo – a red circle and a blue rectangle. There are about 11 lines and 270 stations today. The Tube services run from 5a.m. until midnight. London buses – or double-deckers – are typically red and many of them have got two floors. Buses are the cheapest way to travel around the city. You can also catch a boat – London river buses – at the River Thames and enjoy fantastic views of London along the way. It’s fast and tickets are not expensive at all. People who live in London or tourists can buy an Oyster Card. It’s an electronic ticket you use to travel on any public transport in the city.

19. You can’t use the Tube in the evening.

20. Many London buses are red and blue and have got two floors.

21. It doesn’t cost much money to buy tickets for London river buses.

22. People can use an Oyster Card on any public transport in London.

VI. Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank.

Hi Helen,

I hope you are well. How was your summer holiday? We went on a safari in Kenya and it was fantastic. We arrived in Kenya (23) __________ plane, then we to

the bus to Nairobi National Park. We went on a (24) __________ around the park in a Jeep. We were (25) __________ when we saw a family of cheetahs walking in fronf of our Jeep. We stopped and watched them for about ten minutes. Amazing! Cheetah’s (26) __________ is beautiful with black spots. We also visited the baby elephants in the orphanage. I really loved those animals when I saw them. I think I (27) __________ a vet when I grow up and work with elephants. We returned home (28) __________. It was an unforgettable experience.

See you soon.

Mason

23.

A. on

B. by

C. with

D. in

24.

A. roller coaster

B. ride

C. performance

D. guide tour

25.

A. surprised

B. surprising

C. bored

D. boring

26.

A. mane

B. feather

C. fur

D. trunk

27.

A. will become

B. be

C. am coming

D.am

28.

A. two days after

B. two days ago

C. last two days

D. before two days

VII. Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets.

29. __________ your science homework last night, Kim? (YOU/DO)

30. My sister _________ to New York tomorrow morning at seven o’clock. She bought her ticket flight yesterday. (FLY)

31. In the future, I think people __________ on another planet. (LIVE)

32. There ______ many clowns and acrobats with colourful costumes at the circus last weekend. (BE)

VIII. Rearrange the words to make correct sentences.

33. you/ What/ have/ dinner/ last/ did/ for/ night/?

_______________________________________

34. We/ visit/ our/ are/ this/ grandparents/ going/ weekend/ to/.

_______________________________________

IX. Make a suitable question for the underlined part in each sentence.

35. Virginia Woolf wrote her first bo

in 1915.

_______________________________________

36. Peter stayed in bed all day yesterday because he was ill.

_______________________________________

37. I saw a robotics exhibition at the new exhibition centre last Saturday.

_______________________________________

X. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning.

38. If you don’t study harder, you won’t pass the exams.

=> Unless ____________________________________

39. I advise you not to arrive late at the meeting.

=> You ______________________________________

40. It’s possible that our class will visit the National Fine Arts Museum next month.

=> Our class __________________________________

ĐÁP ÁN

1. False	5. B	9. C	13. A	17. B	21. True	25. A	29. Did you do
2. False	6. C	10. A	14. D	18. D	22. True	26.C	30. is flying
3. True	7. D	11. B	15. B	19. False	23. B	27. A	31. will live
4. True	8. A	12. D	16. C	20. False	24. D	28. B	32. were

33. What did you have for dinner last night?

34. We are going to visit our grandparents this weekend

35. When did Virginia Woolf write her first bo

?

36. Why did Peter stay in bed all day yesterday?

37. Where did you see a robotics exhibition last Saturday?

38. Unless you study harder, you won’t pass the exams.

39. You shouldn’t arrive late at the meeting.

40. Our class might visit the National Fine Arts Museum next month.

.................

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